gardentuber Posted March 9, 2010 Posted March 9, 2010 Oh dear! We have grammar wars! Dipping my toe in these troubled waters... I've always thought that the 'd' in 'used' denoted the past tense and since 'used to' denotes past tense, the 'd' was required, no matter what. Now, Sharon provides us with an arcane rule that sounds just wrong/obscure enough to be right (as many rules in English do). However, without knowing her bona fides, it's hard to trust, you know? This is the internet, where we're all experts (or at least incorrigible! ). Like Xeran, I tend to work by the seat of my pants and that usually works out. I think I'll make a point of avoiding using 'did' and 'use(d) to' in the same sentence and play it safe!
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